So we threw down a challenge at the end of our discussion of Tangent Lines, lets solve it.
Recall we wanted to find a curve such that for any
we have the line tangent to that point
satisfy
.
(Historical note: Debeaune asked Descartes this problem in a letter in 1638; Leibniz solved this problem in 1684 using “infinitesimals”. We will use modern calculus to solve the problem!)
So what is ? Spoiler below!
Well, we set up the equation describing the tangent line
(1)
We can rewrite this to be
(2)
Or equivalently for any
.
Lets try using the tangent line as an approximation for this curve. So for small we write
(3)
But since we rewrite the right hand side as
(3′)
What to do?
Assumption: Lets write .
We can have a coarse approximation
So for small we have
We could also break this down into two steps:
(4).
Why can we say this? Well, because
and plugging this into (4) gives the correct relation.
We could get a better approximation iterating this three times:
(4a).
We could do this times:
(4b).
Taking the limit we obtain the definition
(5).
For sufficiently large , we have for any
the quantity
be really small. So Equation (5) works for any real number.
What is this ? It is precisely the exponential function, usually written
.
Exercise 1. Prove .
Exercise 2. What if we drop our assumption and allow be some nonzero real number? What if we let it be zero?
Exercise 3. Prove for any positive real number
.
Exercise 4. Calculate to 7 digits of precision. (This mathematical constant “
” is called “Euler’s constant”.) [Hint: we need for
digits of precision to evaluate the limit with some
.]
Exercise 5. Lets prove some inequalities involving ! Prove the following:
(a)
(b) for
(c) for
(d) for
for
(f) for
and
(i.e.,
is a positive integer)
(g) for
,
(h) for
.
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